Many historians have argued that by the late nineteenth century the industrialized nations of Europe had achieved global economic dominance more through force and coercion than through the superiority of their industrial products.
Which of the following nineteenth-century developments would best support this contention?

a. The growth of industrial production in North America
b. The grown of South American agricultural exports
c. The abolition of slavery in the Americas
d. The decline of the Indian textile industry’s share of global manufacturing

These two points are not in contradiction. Contrary to the case of European colonialists who had colonized Africa and Asia, America and their businessmen did not have colonies to exploit or on which to impose conditions to their advantage. Besides, America´s industrial wealth and might in the late 19th century was not based on slave labor. Slavery was abolished as a result of the Civil War.

divyamadaan8054 divyamadaan8054 · Answer 2 · 2022-01-10T13:33:54+01:00

Despite significant differences in the international and technological conditions of growth between today and the nineteenth century, there are essential commodities that include government actions.

Correct option is A and C

The growth of industrial production in North America
The abolition of slavery in the Americas

These two ideas are not mutually exclusive. Unlike European colonialists who invaded Africa and Asia, America and its businessmen lacked colonies to exploit or on which to impose favorable circumstances. Furthermore, America's late-nineteenth-century industrial prosperity ad power were not built on slave labor. Because of the Civil War, slavery was abolished.

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