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Consider a person who has Marfan syndrome, which is a genetic disorder. This person has only one allele for this disorder in their genotype. What does this mean about the allele for Marfan syndrome? Summarize evidence to support your claim, and explain your reasoning.

Respuesta :

Answer: marfans syndrome is dominate

Explanation:

There is only one allele and so there would be like a 25% chance that the person would get it and so it kind of has to be dominate (I think o could of worded that Better but o cant think of the words to make it clearer)

The Marfan syndrome is a more dominant syndrome and one gene has a 25% chance that person could get it.

Waht is marfan sydrome ?

Marfan syndrome is a genetic disorder and is rare and it affects the connective tissues. Theirs complications lead them to tall and thin, long arms and legs and fingers.

The serious complications involve the heart and arota. The person with one gene of this disorder in this genotype can be found in 25% of the population.

Find out more information about Marfan syndrome.

brainly.com/question/11322404

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