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Which of these statements regarding the settlement of Texas is NOT accurate?
w
A)
Anglo settlement in Mexico started only after Texas became an
independent republic.
B)
3
The Spanish began to explore Texas before the first English colony was
founded in Virginia
Many Anglos settled in Texas in the early 1800s in order to acquire land at
a very low cost.
D
The Mexican government hoped Anglo settlers would help to bring
prosperity to the region specifically and to the country in general.
Why did the Spanish government first allow Anglo-Americans to settle in

Respuesta :

Baraq

The statement that is not true among the following is that "Anglo settlement in Mexico started only after Texas became an independent republic."

This is because Texas became independent in December 1845, while Anglo America settled in Texas around 1821 and 1835.

The other options are true concerning the settlement of Texas.

Also, the Spanish government first allowed Anglo-Americans to settle in because they believed they served as a defense team or group the illegal settlers from the United States.

On the other hand, the Anglo Americans came to settle in Texas because of cheap land.

Hence, in this case, it is concluded that the Anglo Americans settled Texas for economic reasons.

Learn more here: https://brainly.com/question/15565789

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