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in section 28 of chapter v. of his 'second treatise of government', john locke seems to define the right to property as the result of one's labor. but what about the ownership of natural resources? do you think that locke's theory would allow for the ownership of land (or water, or air)

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The Two Treatises of Government (1690), a fundamental book of political analysis by John Locke, has long been praised as a key document in the development of political liberalism.

John Locke's Theory Of Property:

It is widely acknowledged that Locke makes his strongest arguments for individual natural rights, limited government based on the consent of the governed, the separation of powers within government, and—most revolutionary—the right of members of a society to remove leaders who breach the social contract in the Second Treatise.

There isn't anything about this widely studied and referenced text that hasn't sparked debate among Locke experts, even among casual readers of the history of political philosophy. What might be clear to the casual reader serves as a point of disagreement for never-ending academic debate.

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